(c) Ratio scale

(d) Interval scale.

202. Which of the following is an example of the criterion-reference test?

(a) The test is such as the score on it reveals what the position of an individual’s is in the group on which it has been standardized

(b) The test is such as the score on it reveals how much an individual has acquired in some specific area of learning as judged against some external criterion

(c) The test is such as its norms have been prepared on a sufficiently large sample

(d) The test is such as its reliabilities and validities have been established extensively.

203. Which is the characteristic of a norm- reference test?

(a) It is objective-referenced or domain referenced

(b) It tells to what extent instructional objectives have been achieved.

(c) It has items which cluster around a few well-specified objectives

(d) It reveals where a particular individual stands in the group in regard to the trait being measured by the test.

204. Qualitative analysis is not, at all, used in

(a) Descriptive research.

(b) Ethnographical research.

(c) Experimental research.

(d) Historical research.

205. Which of the following indicates that it is a parameter, not a statistics?

(a) X

(b) S

(c) S

(d) N

206. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) N is used for the number of cases or subjects in the sample

(b) (Mew) is used for the mean of the total population

(c) S is used for standard deviation of a sample

(d) S is used for the standard deviation of the population.

207. What should we do, if we want to reduce both the type-I and type II errors?

(a) Increase the level of significance

(b) Decrease the level of significance

(c) Increase the size of the sample

(d) Reduce the size of the sample.

208. The level of significance (alpha) gives the probability of

(a) Mistakenly or falsely accepting H0.

(b) Mistakenly or falsely rejecting H0.

(c) Correctly rejecting H0.

(d) Correctly accepting H0.

209. (r-1) x (k-1) gives the degrees of freedom of

(a) SST in case of ANOVA.

(b) SS AXB in case of factorial design of experiment.

(c) Chi-square value in case of chi-square test.

(d) t-value in case of uncorrelated samples test.

210. Given the scores of 50 students on a test of intelligence and only the information who of them gets which category i.e. I, II, III divisions and fall in the annual examination, which method of statistical analysis may reveal whether intelligence is related to achievement or not?

(a) T-test

(b) Median test

(c) Chi-square

(d) Rho (r) i.e., Ran Order Correlation.

211. What method should be used if a researcher wants to know how different levels of an independent variable affect the dependent variable at different levels of another independent variables?

(a) Analysis of covariance method

(b) Two-way analysis of variance

(c) Multiple correlation method

(d) Factorial analysis of variance method.

212. Various factors operating and interacting simultaneously at the same time affect human behaviour. This can be studied more appropriately through the

(a) Factorial designs of statistical analysis.

(b) Two-way analysis of Variance.

(c) T-test.

(d) Non-parametric tests of analysis.

213. A major limitation of the projective tests is that they

(a) Are individual tests.

(b) Are not reliable and valid.

(c) Require a highly specialized training in the administration, scoring and interpretation of these tests.

(d) Are very costly.

214. Which is the technique used for measuring interpersonal relationships within a group?

(a) Psychogram

(b) Psychodynamics.

(c) Sociogram

(d) Scalogram.

215. Which is the device for a graphic and straightforward portrayal of the total configuration of relations among the members of a group at some given point in time?

(a) Sociometry

(b) Psychometry

(c) Group dynamics

(d) Psychodynamics.

216. A research hypothesis cannot take the following form

(a) Declarative form.

(b) Problem form.

(c) Question form.

(d) Null form.

217. What is most correct about the necessary conditions that are conducive to the formulation of hypothesis?

(a) Richness of researcher’s background knowledge

(b) Researcher’s creative imagination

(c) Analogy and consultations with experts and the guide

(d) All of these.

218. What is irrelevant in the context of the criteria of acceptable hypothesis?

(a) A hypothesis should be clearly and precisely stated

(b) A hypothesis should state the expected relationship between the variables

(c) A hypothesis should be such that it can be proved

(d) A hypothesis should be testable.

219. A good or adequate hypothesis should

(a) Be limited in scope.

(b) Not be a bunch of relationships.

(c) Be consistent with known theories and facts.

(d) Have all these characteristics.

220. What is irrelevant in the context of the feasibility consideration of research problem?

(a) Researcher’s competencies

(b) Researcher’s interest and enthusiasm

(c) Supervisor’s willingness, if he is required to guide the research work

(d) Researcher’s financial, time and energy resources.

221. While defining the research problem, the researcher is not required to state

(a) The scope of the problem.

(b) The questions to be answered so as to make the problem clearer and more understandable.

(c) The special terms used in the title mean

(d) Personal and special interests the researcher has in the problem.

222. To define a problem does not mean.

(a) To give its standard meaning and definition as understood universally.

(b) To put a fence around it.

(c) To specify it in detail and with precision.

(d) To specify and state questions and subordinate questions to be answered.

223. If Data Collection stands for 1, formulation of hypothesis for 2, selection of the problem for 3, Methodology for 4, analysis and interpretation of data for 5 and reporting the results for 6, which is the correct sequence of the steps in educational research in code numbers?

(a) 1, 3, 2,5,6,4

(b) 3, 2, 5,1,6,4

(c) 3, 2, 4,1,6,5

(d) 3, 2, 4,1,5,6.

224. For what is the Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT) most useful?

(a) Differential diagnosis

(b) Predicting suitability for psychotherapy

(c) Assessment of intellectual level

(d) Assessment of motivational variables.

225. Which of the following is NOT an example of projective tests?

(a) TAT

(b) Rorschach Test

(c) Draw-man Test

(d) MMPI.

226. In the assessment of personality, the normative and objective method refers to

(a) The use of sophisticated techniques for measuring the accuracy of a person’s perception of reality.

(b) Prediction of behaviour on the basis of intensive interviewing.

(c) Prediction of behaviour on the basis of data from personality tests.

(d) The use of projective techniques.

227. Which is the best format to use if content and material gathered for certain number of students by different interviews have to be compared in a piece of research ?

(a) Projective

(b) Structured

(c) Unstructured

(d) Analytical.

228. What best describes the Likert technique of attitude measurement?

(a) Subjects indicate whether they agree with each of a series of attitude statements which are equally spaced along an attitude continuum

(b) Subjects indicate on five point scales the extent of their agreement with a set of attitude statements

(c) Subjects judge a particular concept on a series of bipolar semantic scale

(d) Subjects response to an open-ended interview are coded by content analyst.

229. What can increase the power of a statistical test?

(a) Decreasing the size of the sample

(b) Avoiding the use jf the null hypothesis

(c) Designing for small error effects

(d) Avoiding random sampling.

230. Which is not the effective way of controlling a nuisance variable in an experimental design?

(a) Excluding the variable as one of the factors in the experiment

(b) Exercising statistical control

(c) Random assignment of subjects

(d) Holding the nuisance variable constant for all subjects.

231. What are the types of Descriptive Research?

(a) Survey Test

(b) Questionnaire Survey

(c) Interview Survey

(d) All of these.

232. Who has defined Ex-Post Facto Research by saying that it is a systematic scientific exploration in which the scientist (researcher) does not have direct control on the independent variable?

(a) Fred Karlinger

(b) George J. Mouly

(c) John W. Best

(d) W.S. Monroe.

233. What are the types of variables?

(a) Independent variables

(b) Controlled variables

(c) Both of them

(d) None of these.

234. What is the difference between Laboratory Experiement and Field Experiment?

(a) Difference of place

(b) Difference of samples

(c) Difference of variables

(d) All of these.

235. Which experiments are more popular in Educational Psychology?

(a) Laboratory Experiments

(b) Field Experiments

(c) Field Studies

(d) Historical Researches.

236. Which technique of research is applied in Educational Sociology?

(a) Laboratory Experiments

(b) Field Experiments

(c) Field Studies

(d) Historical Researches.

237. What is Survey method?

(a) Laboratory Experiments

(b) Field Experiments

(c) Field Studies

(d) Historical Researches.

238. What is not correct about hypothesis?

(a) It is essential in studies where cause effect relationships are to be discovered

(b) It is less crucial in studies in which the task is one of determining the status of a given phenomenon

(c) Its absence, essentially, means no research or poor research

(d) Even in case of status-studies, the investigator is likely to need some tentative hypothesis to guide him.

239. What does representative sample mean?

(a) A miniature or replica of the population at least with respect to the characteristic under investigation, if not in all respects

(b) A sample similar to the population in all respects

(c) A sample which is smaller in size than the population

(d) A sample whose mean is estimated to be within sampling errors of the population mean.

240. If an examiner, inadvertently, allows three minutes extra time to some subjects in the group on a test of intelligence used in a research, this will introduce in the experiment

(a) Sampling error of random nature.

(b) Measurement error of random nature.

(c) Measurement error of constant nature.

(d) Sampling error of constant nature.

241. Level of significance means the probability of

(a) Rejecting the null hypothesis.

(b) Accepting the null hypothesis.

(c) Accepting the research hypothesis.

(d) Rejecting the research hypothesis.

242. Historical research has nothing to do with

(a) Collecting source material.

(b) Internal and external criticism of source material.

(c) Formulating hypothesis to explain events and conditions.

(d) Testing hypothesis statistically to draw inferences.

243. The best measuring tool for research is

(a) Well-standardized.

(b) Highly reliable.

(c) Highly valid.

(d) Both sufficiently reliable and sufficiently valid.

244. In true experimental research, the investigator is always required to make a compromise between

(a) Control of extraneous variables and building the correlated variable into design.

(b) “Internal validity” and “external validity”.

(c) “Contrived setting” and natural “setting”.

(d) “Randomization”and “manipulation” which of the above four is not correct.

245. What is not possible to achieve in case of the field experiment?

(a) Randomization

(b) Manipulation

(c) Control of extraneous variables

(d) Randomization and control of extraneous variables both.

246. Causal-comparative studies are classified under

(a) Experimental research.

(b) Descriptive research.

(c) Historical research.

(d) Developmental research.

247. Systematic sampling procedure is a kind of

(a) Purposive sampling.

(b) Quota sampling.

(c) Random sampling.

(d) Non-probability sampling.

248. Which is the most correct among the following statement?

(a) Non-parametric tests are most powerful when the assumptions underlying them are fully satisfied

(b) Parametric tests are less powerful when the assumptions underlying them are not satisfied

(c) Parametric tests are always preferable to non-parametric tests as they are most powerful

(d) Non-parametric tests are always preferable to parametric tests because they are simple, easy and require a small sample.

249. Which of the following is not effective in reducing the error in experimental research?

(a) Increasing the sample size

(b) Matching the subjects in the group

(c) Building the variable in the experiment itself.

(d) Random selection and random assignment of subjects to groups.

250. Why is the hypothesis not acceptable that “The number of tables and chairs in the school influences positively the academic achievement of its students”?

(a) It is not precisely stated

(b) It is not testable

(c) It is not scientifically developed

(d) It is not based on any rational relationship between dependent and independent variables.

251. What is not related to increasing sensitivity of the test?

(a) Reducing the level of noise

(b) Increasing sample size

(c) Increasing reliability of measures

(d) Using computer for making calculations.

252. What helps most in identification of the research problem?

(a) Review of related literature

(b) Researcher’s own experience

(c) Discussion with the supervisor

(d) All of these.

253. Random sampling does not

(a) Make the sample representative of the population.

(b) Ensure generalization of results.

(c) Reduce error and increase precision of the experiment.

(d) Maximize experimental variance.

254. Which of the following does not clarify the nature of the problems?

(a) Precise and exact statement

(b) Its theoretical background

(c) Underlying assumptions

(d) Definition of technical terms used in the statement of the problem.

255. From what do problems for research emerge?

(a) Puzzling experiences

(b) Extensive reading

(c) Review of research already done

(d) Discussion of theories and principles.

256. What is not correct about non-parametric tests of statistical analysis?

(a) They require much larger a sample to obtain the power efficiency which is yielded by a parametric test with a particular size

(b) They are wasteful of data

(c) Their power efficiency is always low

(d) They are less economical.

257. Chi-square test can be appropriately used as

(a) K = 2, df = 1, one expected frequency = 3.

(b) Df greater than 1, but 22 per cent of the expected frequencies are either 2 or 3 or 4.

(c) Df = 6, no expected frequency is smaller than 9.

(d) Df = 6, but one expected frequency is 7.

258. In which Non-Parametric Test, following formula is used?

Rho ? = 6?D/N (N-1)

(a) Chi square Test

(b) Rho correlation

(c) Sign Test

(d) Median Test.

259. If the purpose of research is to discover the relative incidence, distribution and interrelationship of sociological and psychological variables it is called

(a) Experimental research.

(b) Survey research.

(c) Ex post-facto research.

(d) Field experiment.

260. What is the essential difference between the laboratory experiment and the field study experiment?

(a) The logic and purpose of the research

(b) Manipulation of independent variable

(c) Testing of hypothesis

(d) Randomization.

261. What is internal validity of experimental research?

(a) The extent to which the results can be generalized to other populations.

(b) The extent to which the results obtained are due to differences in the treatments

(c) The extent to which control of extraneous variables is made rigorous

(d) The extent of which manipulation of independent variable is ensured.

262. What are the main functions of analysis of data?

(a) Making the data meaningful

(b) Testing null hypothesis

(c) Acquiring meaningful results

(d) All of these.

263. Given the following distribution

X F

0-20 0

20-40 5

40-60 22

60-80 25

80-100 16

The value of median is

(a) 60.5.

(b) 65.0.

(c) 65.6.

(d) 66.6.

264. Cumulative frequency curve is known as

(a) Ogive.

(b) Histogram.

(c) Hysterogram.

(d) Frequency polygon.

265. Middle quartile is known as

(a) Median.

(b) Mode.

(c) Geometric mean,

(d) Harmonic mean.

266. The measure which divides a distribution in ten equal parts is known as

(a) Quartile.

(b) Decile,

(c) Percentile.

(d) Deviation.

267. The following cannot be located with the help of an Ogive

(a) Median.

(b) Mode,

(c) Quartile.

(d) Decile.

268. The most frequent item of the series around which other items are densely populated is known as?

(a) Arithmetic mean.

(b) Harmonic mean.

(c) Geometric mean.

(d) Mode.

269. Given the following series, the value of mode is

5,6,3,2,8,4,7,9,1,10,11,12,13

(a) 13.

(b) 12.

(c) 9.

(d) Not defined.

270. Given the series below

X 18 19 20 21 22 23 2425

F 5 6 7 8 9 8 9 5

The mode is

(a) 20.

(b) 21.

(c) 22.

(d) 23.

271. Graphically, mode can be estimated from

(a) Ogive.

(b) Historigram.

(c) Histogram.

(d) Bar diagram.

272. In a positive skewed distribution

(a) Z=M= X

(b) Z<3M>.

(c) 2

(d) M> Z>.

273. In a moderately skewed distribution

(a) Z= = M

(b)Z = 3M-2.

(c) =M= 2Z.

(d) M = 2 -Z.

274. Given the following

-Z=? (-M)

The missing figure is

(a) 1.

(b) 2

(c) 3.

(d) 4.

275. Which of the following measures of central tendency cannot be represented graphically?

(a) Arithmetic mean

(b) Mode

(c) Median

(d) Quartile

276. Given the N values in a series, the geometric mean is

(a) The square root of the product of N.

(b) The third root of the product of N values.

(c) The fourth root of the product of N values.

(d) The Nth root of the product of N values.

277. Harmonic mean of a series of data is

(a) The reciprocal of the arithmetic average of the reciprocals of the values of its various items.

(b) The reciprocal of the arithmetic average of the values of various items.

(c) Always ill-defined.

278. Which of the measures given here are based on every item of the series?

(a) Range

(b) Standard deviation

(c) Quartile deviation

(d) All of these.

279. Which of the measures of dispersion is more useful in case of open-end distributions?

(a) Range

(b) Average deviation

(c) Standard deviation

(d) Quartile deviation.

280. Standard deviation is always computed from

(a) Mean.

(b) Mode.

(c) Median.

(d) GM.

281. Under a normal curve X a covers

(a) 95.54 per cent of the area.

(b) 94.55 per cent.

(c) 95.85 per cent.

(d) 95.45 per cent.

282. Which of the following measures is least affected by extreme items?

(a) Quartile deviation.

(b) Range

(c) Standard deviation

(d) Mean deviation.

283. Variance is given by

284. Which of the following is a computed measure of absolute variation?

(a) Range

(b) Standard deviation

(c) Quartile deviation

(d) All of these.

285. Coefficient of variation is given by

286. When coefficient of skewness is positive, the distribution is said to be

(a) Leptokutic.

(b) Platykutic.

(c) Symmetrical.

(d) Positively skewed.

(e) Negatively skewed.

287. A negative coefficient of skewness implies that

(a) Mean is greater than mode.

(b) Mean is equal to mode.

(c) Mean is equal to median.

(d) Mean is less than mode.

288. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of skewness

(a) Is always positive.

(b) is always negative.

(c) Can be both positive and negative.

(d) Cannot be zero.

(e) Can take any value.

289. Bowley’s coefficient of skewness is given by

290. Where informants are literate and are spread over a vast area, the most suitable method of collecting data is

(a) Mailed questionnaire method.

(b) Direct personal interview.

(c) Interview by investigator.

(d) None of these.

291. Who have made the greatest contribution in the development of statistical methods?

(a) Scientists

(b) Economists

(c) Businessmen

(d) Mathematicians.

292. Who is the real giant in the development of the theory of statistics?

(a) Gauss

(b) Bowley

(c) Galton

(d) R.A.Fisher.

293. Statistics can be best considered

(a) As an art.

(b) As a science.

(c) 90th art as well as science.

(d) Neither art nor science.

294. Which is not a correct statement?

(a) A test can be reliable without being valid

(b) A test cannot be valid without being reliable

(c) A test can be both valid and reliable

(d) A test can be valid without being reliable.

295. Which is not a projective test?

(a) Ink Blot test

(b) TAT

(c) Word association Test

(d) M M P i.

296. ‘Structured’ and ‘Unstructured’ are two types of

(a) Observation.

(b) Introspection,

(c) Interview.

(d) None of these.

297. Closed form of Questionnaire means

(a) Yes or no response.

(b) A short response.

(c) Checking an item out of given responses.

(d) Restricts the choice of response for the respondent.

298. A good Questionnaire is

(a) Significant, novice, clear topic.

(b) As short as possible.

(c) Psychological and biologically arranged.

(d) Easy to tabulate, summarize and interpret.

299. Condition for preparing a Questionnaire is

(a) Problem selected from one and a halftimes more items than needed.

(b) Take help from other studies, related literature and experts of related field.

(c) To explore hypothesis, to cover the whole topic, approval of authorities, related to some known educationists.

(d) To present a preliminary card asking whether the subject is willing to participate and two copies of Questionnaire.

300. Advantage of Questionnaire is

(a) Economical. Nationwide or International coverage.

(b) Easy to plan, construct and administer.

(c) Confidential, less strain, focusing all the significant ideas.

(d) All of these.

301. The mass of data collected needs to be systematized and organised through

(a) Editing.

(b) Classifying.

(c) Tabulating.

(d) All of these.

302. Good Barr and Scates suggest helpful mode to start with the analysis of data

(a) To think in terms of significant tables that the data permit,

(b) To examine carefully the statement of the problem, earlier analysis and to study original record of the data,

(c) To discuss the problems with others,

(d) To make simple statistical calculations from the data.

303. Statistical method of analysis

(a) Ranks and percential ranks, measures of central tendency.

(b) Measures of variability- range, quartile deviation, average deviation and standard deviation.

(c) Correlation, co-efficient of reliability and validity.

(d) Error and probable error – difference or significant difference.

304. Common error of interpretation

(a) Failure to see the problem in proper perspective, to appreciate the relevance of various elements,

(b) Failure to recognise limitations in the research evidence misinterpretation due to unstudied factors,

(c) Ignoring selective factors, difficulties and interpretative evaluation.

(d) All of these.

305. Common fallacy of reasoning leading to erroneous generalization

(a) Fallacy of non observation and mal observation.

(b) Errors incidental to classification, nomenclature and terminology,

(c) Errors commonly arising out of the use of the inductive methods, false analogy including argument from final cause.

(d) All of these.

306. Hint is a formulating generalization

(a) To summarise the findings and compare them with the hypothesis,

(b) That conclusions should be based on the evidence of sound adequate data, must answer the questions asked in the problem.

(c) Must prove or disprove hypothesis, recognize the limitations of the study, accompanied by suggestions for application and implementation and suggestion of problems for further investigation.

(d) All of these.

307. Main body of the research report includes

(a) Introduction – Statement, significance and purposes.

(b) Assumptions and delimitations and assumptions underlying the hypothesis.

(c) Definition of important terms, statement of hypothesis.

(d) All of these.

308. Reference section of a research report includes

(a) Bibliography.

(b) Appendix.

(c) Index if any.

(d) All of these.

309. Projective technique is used for measuring

(a) Individual’s need for self actualization.

(b) Individual’s inventoried interests,

(c) Individual’s dominant feelings, emotions conflicts, needs repressed and stored up in the unconscious mind,

(d) Individual’s value -system.

310. Where does importance of Projective tests lie?

(a) They reveal deeper layers of personality, i.e. emotions, conflicts, feelings, etc.

(b) Reliability and validity

(c) Indirect methods of knowing and the potentials of a person

(d) Non-verbal and can be used even in case of illiterates and children.

311. Not measured by TAT test is

(a) Personality needs.

(b) Personality adjustment.

(c) Reasoning ability.

(d) Emotions.

312. A projective technique uses

(a) A short structured interview schedule.

(b) Unstructured stimulus situations such as ink-blots, photographs etc.

(c) On the spot participants observations for measuring an individual’s qualities.

(d) Direct observations of a person’s behaviour.

313. In Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) the psychologist puts questions like

(a) What does the picture mean to the subject?

(b) What can be the factors that have led to the situation?

(c) What will be the outcome?

(d) All of these.

314. Opinionnaire is defined as a special form of inquiry to collect

(a) The opinion of a sample of population on certain facts.

(b) To quantify, analyse and interpret the collected data.

(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.

(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’.

315. Sociometry is a technique for describing

(a) Social relationships that exists between members of a group.

(b) Attractions or repulsions between individuals.

(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.

(d) Neither’a’nor’b’.

316. Importance of Sociometry lies in

(a) To have an idea of the group at a glance, to form appropriate groups of students for various projects and activities.

(b) To find out the changes taking place in the group structure and qualities of leadership appreciated by the group.

(c) To compare one group with the other to help the guidance worker by acquainting him with the pupil relationships.

(d) All of these.

317. In case of true experimental research the investigator is always required to make a compromise between which of the following four is not correct?

(a) Internal validity and external validity

(b) Contrived setting and natural setting

(c) Randomization and manipulation

(d) Control of extraneous variables and building the correlated variable into design.

318. While writing a research report investigators mostly arrange items in Bibliography in

(a) Heading like – books, perdiocals, newspaper reports, public documents and miscellaneous.

(b) In a single alphabetized list.

(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’.

(d) Neither’a’nore’b’.

319. When researchers refer to a significant difference, they mean that the

(a) Scores of two groups shows great variability.

(b) Experimental results have social importance.

(c) Results of a study occurred by chance.

(d) Results of a study can be replicated by another similar study.

320. Free Association in Psychoanalysis means

(a) Allowing a subject to talk freely.

(b) Focused interview.

(c) A structured interview.

(d) None of the above.

321. There is only person who has defined Educational Research. He is

(a) John W. Best.

(b) W.M. Travers.

(c) George Mouly.

(d) None of these.

322. Who said “Educational Research is that activity which is directed toward development of science of behaviour in educational situation?”

(a) F.L. Whites

(b) W.S. Monroe

(c) W.M. Travers

(d) J.W. Best.

323. Which is not a characteristic of Science?

(a) Science employs hypothesis

(b) Science is based on facts

(c) Science is not free from emotional bias

(d) Science uses quantitative methods.

Answers

201. (d) 202. (b) 203. (d) 204. (c) 205. (c) 206. (d) 207. (c) 208. (c) 209. (c) 210. (b) 211. (d) 212. (a) 213.(d) 214. (c) 215. (a)216. (b) 217. (b) 218. (c) 219. (d) 220. (c) 221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (d) 224. (d) 225. (d) 226. (c) 227. (b) 228. (b) 229. (c) 230. (a) 231. (d) 232. (a) 233. (c) 234. (d) 235. (a) 236. (c) 237. (c) 238. (c) 239. (c) 240. (c) 241. (a) 242. (d) 243. (d) 244. (b) 245. (b) 246. (b) 247. (c) 248. (b) 249. (c) 250. (d) 251. (d) 252. (d) 253. (d) 254. (a) 255. (c) 256. (c) 257. (c) 258 (b) 259. (b) 260. (b) 261. (b) 262. (d) 263. (c) 264. (a) 265. (a) 266. (b) 267. (b) 268. (d) 269. (d) 270. (c) 271. (c) 272. (b) 273. (b) 274. (c) 275. (a) 276. (d) 277. (a) 278. (b) 279. (d) 280. (a) 281. (d) 282. (c) 283. (c) 284. (b) 285. (b) 286. (d) 287. (d) 288. (c) 289. (b) 290. (c) 291. (d) 292. (d) 293. (c) 294. (b) 295. (d) 296. (c) 297. (c) 298. (c) 299. (c) 300. (d) 301. (d) 302. (c) 303. (c) 304. (d) 305. (d) 306. (d) 307. (d) 308. (d) 309. (c) 310. (a) 311(c) 312. (b) 313. (d) 314. (c) 315. (c) 316. (d) 317. (a) 318. (b) 319. (d) 320. (a) 321. (b) 322. (c) 323. (c)